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> Pensions fund a significant part of PE and they do so because they need around a 7% return in order to look solvent.

Pensions fund PE because PE can do a short term cooking of the books in order to smooth out the growth curve. So the return is usually positive each year, not raising problems.

Also what does significant mean? Pensions are the main mechanism non-wealthy people are investing in PE. Being that millions are involved, you would expect pensions would have a sizable portion of the market, but family offices and high net worth offices dominate. If it offers above average returns, why would they not invest? PE is like every other asset class other than housing, the top 1% own a large chunk, the top 20% own the majority, and the bottom 50% own very little. Decisions are not driven by sone fireman, they are driven by the wealthy like everything else. And the origin and continuation of pushing for retirement to come from capital investment comes from the wealthy as well.

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Significant meaning many PE funds are overwhelmingly (like 75+%) funded by pensions and sovereign wealth funds.

Its been awhile since I worked there, but CalPERS and CalSTRS were the two biggest LPs Blackstone had while I was there.


Right, but the CalPERS is sliced into over 2 million pieces, whereas a family office or gulf sovereign wealth fund has much less divvying up. It looks big until you see it has to be divided 2 million ways, as opposed to maybe 20 ways with a family office. The distribution is unequal. But most asset classes are like that, although less so for a single family house.



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